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Difference Between Customer’s Evaluation and Costs of An Offering Case Assignment 1
Difference Between Customer’s Evaluation and Costs of An Offering Case Assignment
Order ID 53563633773 Type Essay Writer Level Masters Style APA Sources/References 4 Perfect Number of Pages to Order 5-10 Pages
Description/Paper Instructions
Difference Between Customer’s Evaluation and Costs of An Offering Case Assignment
1) 3M, Hewlett-Packard, Lego, and other companies use the ________ to manage the innovation process.
2) A ________ is a set of procedures and sources managers use to obtain everyday information about developments in the marketing environment.
3) A(n) ________ is any good, service, or idea that is perceived by someone as new.
4) A company can take several steps to improve the quality of its marketing intelligence. If the company purchases competitive products for study, attends open houses and trade shows, and reads competitors’ published reports and stockholder information, the company is using ________ to improve the quality of its marketing intelligence.
5) ________ consists of people, equipment, and procedures to gather, sort, analyze, evaluate, and distribute needed, timely, and accurate information to marketing decision makers.
6) Most established companies focus on ________ when it comes to innovation.
7) ________ is the difference between the prospective customer’s evaluation of all the benefits and all the costs of an offering and the perceived alternatives.
8) ________ is the result of a concentrated effort by designers, engineers, and purchasing agents to reduce the product’s overall costs.
9) In ________ marketing, the seller engages in the mass production, mass distribution, and mass promotion of one product for all buyers.
10) Marketers usually identify niches by ________.
11) Which of the following is generally considered to be the last step in the marketing research process?
12) ________ is the systematic design, collection, analysis, and reporting of data and findings relevant to a specific marketing situation facing the company.
13) With respect to the sampling plan, three decisions must be made. The decisions are: the sampling unit—who is to be surveyed? Sample size—how many people should be surveyed? And ________.
14) The marketing communications mix consists of six major modes of communications. Which of the following is NOT one of these modes?
15) Marketing communications can contribute to brand equity by establishing the brand in memory and to________ (in)a brand image.
16) ________ communicates a company’s intended value positioning of its product or brand to the market.
17) To reach Generation Y, rock band Foo Fighters created a digital street team that sends targeted e-mail messages to members who “get the latest news, exclusive audio/video sneak previews, tons of chances to win great Foo Fighters prizes, and become part of the Foo Fighters Family.” Which of the following techniques for reaching Generation Y are the Foo Fighters using?
18) New-to-the- world products are ________.
19) Following the ________ approach to target market selection encompasses a strong knowledge of the segment’s needs, a strong market presence, and operating economies through specializing in production, distribution, and promotion.
20) Price has operated as the major determinant of buyer choice among poorer nations, among poorer groups, and with ________ products.
21) Some intermediaries use the following: strategic planning, advanced information systems, sophisticated marketing tools, measure performance on a return-on-investment basis, segment their markets, improve their target marketing and positioning, and ________.
22) “Power prices” use price as a key strategic tool. These “power prices” have discovered the highly ________ effect of price on the bottom line.
23) A company can add new products through acquisition or development. The acquisition route can take three forms. The company can buy other companies, it can acquire patents from other companies, or it can buy a ________ or _________ from another company.
24) John Kotter’s view argues that management focuses on coping with complexity, whereas leadership focuses on coping with _____.
25) Leadership is best defined as _____.
26) Which of the following is NOT included in the definition of conflict?
27) Negotiation can be defined as a process in which two or more parties exchange goods or services and attempt to agree upon _____.
28) _____ bargaining is negotiation that seeks to divide a “fixed pie.”
29) Which of the following statements about leadership is true?
30) Danielle wants to become a surgeon, not only because achieving this goal will give her self-respect and autonomy, but also because she wants a job with high status and recognition from others. Which of Maslow’s needs is Danielle trying to fill?
31) _____ can be used to increase the perception that employees are treated fairly.
32) Examples of off-the-job training include all of the following except _____.
33) Training employees how to be better listeners falls under which of the following training categories?
34) Which type of skill training has become increasingly important in organizations?
35) According to a recent survey, about ___ percent of employees working in the 1,000 largest U.S. corporations receive ethics training.
36) Organizational structure has six key elements. Which of the following is not one of these elements?
37) Which of the following is not a primary force for change in organizations?
38) The “realistic” personality from Holland’s typology of personality and congruent occupations would be well suited for which of the following jobs?
39) What term is used for the tendency of an individual to attribute his own successes to internal factors while putting the blame for failures on external factors?
40) A task that is subdivided into many separate jobs is considered to have _____.
41) Under exponential smoothing, if we want our forecast to be responsive to recent demand, the value of alpha should be:
42) Which of the following would NOT be classified as a time-series technique?
43) According to David Maister, the most complex projects requiring innovation and creativity are called _________.
44) Goldratt’s rule of production scheduling include all but:
45) If the system contains a bottleneck, the _______ is the best place for control. If there is no bottleneck, the __________ is the best place for control.
46) “Hard” capital rationing refers to the rationing __________.
47) __________ says to look for opportunities to invest in positive-NPV projects in foreign markets or to develop derivatives or design arrangements that enable firms to cope better with the risks they face in their foreign operations.
48) __________ says to recognize the value of hidden options in a situation, such as the foreign exchange options in some derivative instruments.
49) Under capital rationing, given the choice among several equally attractive investments, the best tool to use is the __________.
50) An all-equity-financed firm would __________.
51) __________ says to seek out investments that offer the greatest expected risk-adjusted real return.
52) A checking account is __________.
53) Due to asymmetric information, the market fears that a firm issuing securities will do so when the stock is _________.
54) Which of the following statements is true?
55) Which of the following statements is true?
56) __________ says to recognize the value of options contained in derivatives.
57) __________ says to use derivatives to pay others to take risks.
58) The conversion price (for a convertible security) is usually adjusted __________.
59) The investment decision best addresses which of the following questions?
60) Dimensions of risk include __________.
Difference Between Customer’s Evaluation and Costs of An Offering Case Assignment
RUBRIC
QUALITY OF RESPONSE NO RESPONSE POOR / UNSATISFACTORY SATISFACTORY GOOD EXCELLENT Content (worth a maximum of 50% of the total points) Zero points: Student failed to submit the final paper. 20 points out of 50: The essay illustrates poor understanding of the relevant material by failing to address or incorrectly addressing the relevant content; failing to identify or inaccurately explaining/defining key concepts/ideas; ignoring or incorrectly explaining key points/claims and the reasoning behind them; and/or incorrectly or inappropriately using terminology; and elements of the response are lacking. 30 points out of 50: The essay illustrates a rudimentary understanding of the relevant material by mentioning but not full explaining the relevant content; identifying some of the key concepts/ideas though failing to fully or accurately explain many of them; using terminology, though sometimes inaccurately or inappropriately; and/or incorporating some key claims/points but failing to explain the reasoning behind them or doing so inaccurately. Elements of the required response may also be lacking. 40 points out of 50: The essay illustrates solid understanding of the relevant material by correctly addressing most of the relevant content; identifying and explaining most of the key concepts/ideas; using correct terminology; explaining the reasoning behind most of the key points/claims; and/or where necessary or useful, substantiating some points with accurate examples. The answer is complete. 50 points: The essay illustrates exemplary understanding of the relevant material by thoroughly and correctly addressing the relevant content; identifying and explaining all of the key concepts/ideas; using correct terminology explaining the reasoning behind key points/claims and substantiating, as necessary/useful, points with several accurate and illuminating examples. No aspects of the required answer are missing. Use of Sources (worth a maximum of 20% of the total points). Zero points: Student failed to include citations and/or references. Or the student failed to submit a final paper. 5 out 20 points: Sources are seldom cited to support statements and/or format of citations are not recognizable as APA 6th Edition format. There are major errors in the formation of the references and citations. And/or there is a major reliance on highly questionable. The Student fails to provide an adequate synthesis of research collected for the paper. 10 out 20 points: References to scholarly sources are occasionally given; many statements seem unsubstantiated. Frequent errors in APA 6th Edition format, leaving the reader confused about the source of the information. There are significant errors of the formation in the references and citations. And/or there is a significant use of highly questionable sources. 15 out 20 points: Credible Scholarly sources are used effectively support claims and are, for the most part, clear and fairly represented. APA 6th Edition is used with only a few minor errors. There are minor errors in reference and/or citations. And/or there is some use of questionable sources. 20 points: Credible scholarly sources are used to give compelling evidence to support claims and are clearly and fairly represented. APA 6th Edition format is used accurately and consistently. The student uses above the maximum required references in the development of the assignment. Grammar (worth maximum of 20% of total points) Zero points: Student failed to submit the final paper. 5 points out of 20: The paper does not communicate ideas/points clearly due to inappropriate use of terminology and vague language; thoughts and sentences are disjointed or incomprehensible; organization lacking; and/or numerous grammatical, spelling/punctuation errors 10 points out 20: The paper is often unclear and difficult to follow due to some inappropriate terminology and/or vague language; ideas may be fragmented, wandering and/or repetitive; poor organization; and/or some grammatical, spelling, punctuation errors 15 points out of 20: The paper is mostly clear as a result of appropriate use of terminology and minimal vagueness; no tangents and no repetition; fairly good organization; almost perfect grammar, spelling, punctuation, and word usage. 20 points: The paper is clear, concise, and a pleasure to read as a result of appropriate and precise use of terminology; total coherence of thoughts and presentation and logical organization; and the essay is error free. Structure of the Paper (worth 10% of total points) Zero points: Student failed to submit the final paper. 3 points out of 10: Student needs to develop better formatting skills. The paper omits significant structural elements required for and APA 6th edition paper. Formatting of the paper has major flaws. The paper does not conform to APA 6th edition requirements whatsoever. 5 points out of 10: Appearance of final paper demonstrates the student’s limited ability to format the paper. There are significant errors in formatting and/or the total omission of major components of an APA 6th edition paper. They can include the omission of the cover page, abstract, and page numbers. Additionally the page has major formatting issues with spacing or paragraph formation. Font size might not conform to size requirements. The student also significantly writes too large or too short of and paper 7 points out of 10: Research paper presents an above-average use of formatting skills. The paper has slight errors within the paper. This can include small errors or omissions with the cover page, abstract, page number, and headers. There could be also slight formatting issues with the document spacing or the font Additionally the paper might slightly exceed or undershoot the specific number of required written pages for the assignment. 10 points: Student provides a high-caliber, formatted paper. This includes an APA 6th edition cover page, abstract, page number, headers and is double spaced in 12’ Times Roman Font. Additionally, the paper conforms to the specific number of required written pages and neither goes over or under the specified length of the paper.
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