Evolution of Social Behavior and Opportunities Case Assignment

Evolution of Social Behavior and Opportunities Case Assignment

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Type	Essay
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Evolution of Social Behavior and Opportunities Case Assignment

This is a combination between sociology and business. Over the centuries social behavior has evolved and with it many opportunities have arisen for companies and organizations. One of the changes was the sexual revolution whereby the subject of sex is public and not a thing of shame as it was before. The change of perception on women and thus the rise of women into power has also been one of the major changes in societal behavior. All these have led to growth and development of businesses to serve the needs of these changes. For examples the development of gay bars has come up due to the slow societal acceptance of homosexual behavior. In this topic I will look closely at the societal changes that have occurred and how the business world has responded to these changes.

 

 

 

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Prepare an annotated bibliography in APA format. The annotated bibliography should have a minimum of five peer reviewed resources that you locate from the library. The summary of each reference should be around 150-200 words long. All citations must be done in APA format (6th edition). This should be submitted in a Word document (or equivalent) in 12 point font, single spaced (note your paper will be double spaced, but the bibliography may be single spaced).

 

Thanks for your help!

Psychology Multiple Choice Questions (Only Subject Matter Expert)

Hi, I need these MCQs with 100% correct answers,nothing less then A+… only subject matter experts should attempt.

 

Multiple Choice Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed answer sheet)

1. The central question for the field of Learning is:

(a) How do genetics influence behavior?

(b) What role does the environment play in the development of mental processes?

(c) How do we come to have knowledge?
(d) Why do learning disabilities develop?

2. Which of the following could be considered valid ways to measure learning?

(a) the rate at which an animal presses a bar in an experimental chamber
(b) the degree to which one’s respiration rate changes from one situation to another

(c) the ability of an individual to recall material while completing an exam
(d) all of the above

3. Which of the following is not demonstrative of learning?

(a) possessing factual knowledge
(b) the acquisition of a new skill

(c) experiencing a surge in one’s attentional ability following the consumption of a stimulant medication

(d) feeling more competent after training, compared to before training

4. One’s potential for learning could be demonstrated if:

(a) acquired knowledge is used after it is initially obtained
(b) acquired knowledge is used as it is obtained

(c) acquired knowledge is used before it is obtained
(d) none of the above

5.Which of the following changes in behavior are typically excluded from a formal definition of learning?

(a) changes that are transient

(b) permanent changes in behavior

(c) changes in one’s behavioral repertoire
(d) none of the above

6. Bandura’s “BoBo doll” experiment illustrated the distinction between:

(a) physiological and affective changes in behavior
(b) potential and actual changes in behavior

(c) potential and maturational changes in behavior
(d) actual and physiological changes in behavior

 

7.Changes due to maturation are excluded from the definition of learning because:

(a) they may arise from innate forces
(b) neural

(c) they occur independent from one’s experiences
(d) all of the above

8.Which of the following is a maturation-based, as opposed to experience-based, change in behavior?

(a) a rat’s faster pace through a maze after 10 attempts through the maze

(b) a decrease in one’s anxiety level towards horror films after viewing one horror film per day for an entire year

(c) developing aggressive tendencies after viewing models acting in an aggressive manner

(d) bone growth

9. Habituation can be measured by:

(a) observing whole-body startle reactions to loud tones
(b) measuring the amount of blood flowing into one’s brain

(c) measuring changes in the electrical conductivity of the skin
(d) all of the above

10.Which of the following is most likely to result in suppressed responding during a habituation experiment?

(a) spaced presentations
(b) massed presentations
(c) savings

(d) generalization

11. Which of the following is most likely to result in durable habituation?

(a) spaced presentations
(b) massed presentations
(c) savings

(d) dishabituation

 

12.After habituating his animals to a visual stimulus, Dr. Stillman presents a novel tone to his subjects. Following the presentation of the tone, the animals are again shown the initial visual stimulus, but they no longer habituate to this event. What has occurred?

(a) generalization

(b) sensory adaptation
(c) savings

(d) dishabituation

13.After habituating his animals to a dark-blue circle, Dr. Stillman presents a light-blue circle to his subjects and finds that they continue to habituate to this novel item. What has occurred?

(a) generalization

(b) sensory adaptation
(c) savings

(d) dishabituation

14. Effector fatigue occurs when:

(a) sensory receptors lose their ability to detect changes in the environment
(b) one’s response system is depleted

(c) a subject exhibits an orienting response to a stimulus
(d) none of the above

15. Neurons directly involved in the reflex arc have been labeled:

(a) Type S
(b) Type R
(c) Type H
(d) Type A

, 6. Neurons directly involved in the reflex arc have been labeled __ , and are closely related to the process of __ .

(a) Type S; sensitization
(b) Type S; habituation
(c) Type H; sensitization
(d) Type H; habituation

 

Learnin Theories

17.Neurons that playa major role in the general level of arousal of the nervous system have been labeled:

(a) Type S
(b) Type R
(c) Type H
(d) Type A

18. Why is a CR sometimes called an anticipatory response?

(a) because a subject anticipates that making a CR will lead to some type of reward

(b) because a subject makes a CR during the presentation of the US
(c) because a subject makes a CR during the presentation of the CS
(d) none of the above

19.Which of the following methods of classical conditioning is focused on the survival value of conditioned associations?

(a) eyeblink conditioning
(b) SCR measurement

(c) conditioned taste aversion
(d) all of the above

20.Dr. Williams is interested in studying classical conditioning, but she feels that manipulating reflex-evoking USs in unethical. To work around Dr. Williams’s ethical standards, she should use:

(a) evaluative conditioning
(b) eyeblink conditioning
(c) SCR measurement

(d) none of the above

21. One possible drawback to evaluative conditioning is:

(a) the reflexes studied are difficult to observe

(b) the SCRs that are to be evaluated can be painful to subjects
(c) the traditional CRs used with the procedure are too intense
(d) none of the above

22. Questions about evaluative conditioning have addressed

(a) whether or not this process is truly classical conditioning
(b) the consciousness status of preference changes

(c) researchers should utilize verbal data during this procedure
(d) all of the above

23. Unconditioned Stimuli:

(a) have no biological significance to an organism
(b) are neutral stimuli

(c) cannot have their significance acquired
(d) none of the above

24. Unconditioned Stimuli:

(a) can have a sensory element to them
(b) are devoid of emotional significance
(c) do not typically elicit specific reactions
(d) are unidimensional

25. Which of the following could serve as a (S?

(a) the passage of time since the most recent US
(b) a tone

(c) one’s external environment
(d) all of the above

 

Multiple Choice Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed answer sheet)

1.In the last 3 months, Mike never knows when he is going to get his allowance from his parents. He knows that he gets paid about every week, but sometimes his allowance comes 10 days after the previous one, sometimes only 4 days separate his allowance, while some payments come on a regular, 7-day rotation. The type of reinforcement schedule being used is a:

(a) variable interval
(b) fixed interval

(c) variable ratio
(d) fixed ratio

2.In a    schedule, reinforcement occurs after a fixed number of responses.

(a) continuous reinforcement
(b) fixed ratio

(c) variable ratio
(d) fixed interval

3.An experimenter designs their experiment so that a reinforcer is delivered after a subject presses a bar in a Skinner box. To maximize conditioning, which delay interval (between the response and the delivery of the reinforcer) should be used?

(a) 1 second
(b) 2 second
(c) 4 second
(d) 8 second

4.The capacity to inhibit immediate gratification in preference for a larger reward in the long run is central to:

(a) secondary reinforcement
(b) self-control

(c) continuous reinforcement
(d) token reinforcement

5. The quickest way to reduce an organism’s biological need would be to use:

(a) secondary reinforcement
(b) self-control

(c) primary reinforcement
(d) token reinforcement

6.A teacher giving a student a coupon they can exchange for a pencil, candy, or other reward is an example of this type of reinforcement.

 

 

(a) secondary and primary reinforcement

(b) self-control and token reinforcement
(c) primary and token reinforcement

(d) secondary and token reinforcement

7.After getting a good grade on an exam, Julie’s mom gives Julie a big hug. The behavior of Julie’s mom in this situation could best be described as:

(a) secondary reinforcement
(b) social reinforcement

(c) primary reinforcement
(d) token reinforcement

8.Sales associates’ attempts to help customers are sometimes rewarded with sales. Though which customer will buy may be unpredictable, more attempts should produce more sales. Such a schedule would illustrate          _ reinforcement:

(a) variable interval
(b) variable ratio
(c) fixed ratio

(d) fixed interval

9. A reinforcer:

(a) only has its reinforcing qualities in its originally-used context
(b) does not always lead to satisfaction

(c) decreases the frequency of the operant response
(d) possesses transsituationality

10.Which of the following could occur within a participant during punishment training?

(a) aggression

(b) conditioned fear

(c) avoidance of the situation
(d) all of the above

11.Dr. Smith is trying to teach Billy to WANT to do his homework, because of the personal satisfaction that homework completion will bring to Billy. Dr. Smith is essentially trying to enhance Billy’s:

(a) extrinsic motivation
(b) intrinsic motivation
(c) latent learning

(d) biofeedback ability

12. A reward can interfere with a punisher when: (page 138)

 

(a) reward and punishment fail to arouse approach-avoidance conflict
(b) the punishment is not consistent

(c) the punishing event becomes a secondary positive reinforcer
(d) none of the above- rewards never interfere with punishment

13.After Susie runs away from her mother and into the street, she is almost hit by a passing car. Following this event, Susie’s mother punishes her for her behavior. Research shows that:

(a) Susie might continue to misbehave, in an even worse manner
(b) the punishment might have no effect on Susie

(c) both a and b

(d) neither a nor b

14. Self-Injurious Behavior tends to be treated with:

(a) reinforcement
(b) punishment

(c) aversion therapy

(d) learned helplessness

15.Skinner’s stance of the use of punishment in treating Self-Injurious Behavior (SIB) was that:

(a) it should not be done because it is immoral

(b) it should not be done because it only reinforces the punisher
(c) it should be done if it is brief, harmless, and contingent on SIB

(d) it should be done in an intense and painful way, in order to be effective in eliminating the SIB

16.Whenever Billy cries at the supermarket, his mom and dad buy him a candy bar, and find that with each trip to the store, Billy cries more and more. What is happening?

(a) Billy’s responses are generalizing

(b) negative reinforcement- Billy has learned that when he cries at the store, he gets a candy bar

(c) masochistic behavior

(d) none of the above- there is no relation between the candy bar and Billy’s behavior

17.Ernie’s car has an automatic transmission with the gear shift behind the steering wheel. Earlier today, however, he drove his mom’s car, which has its automatic transmission gear shift on the floor of the car. As he tried to drive his mom’s car out of her driveway, he reached for the gear shift behind the
steering wheel, although it wasn’t there. Ernie’s behavior in this situation is illustrative of:

(a) retroactive interference
(b) proactive interference
(c) anchoring

(d) none of the above

18.As a result of taking this test today, you are having a difficult time recalling the material you studied yesterday, for a test in tomorrow’s calculus class. The memory deficit described here illustrates:

(a) retroactive interference
(b) proactive interference
(c) anchoring

(d) remote associations

19. Response learning can be enhanced by:

(a) using meaningful response items

(b) using nonmeaningful response items
(c) the experimenter being vague

(d) responses having few associations

20.Which of the following can influence the degree to which items in a paired associate learning task become connected to one another?

(a) prior knowledge

(b) preexisting associations
Ic) cognitive elaboration
(d) all of the above

21.Dr. Smith gives his experimental subjects the words BOY and SKY to learn in a paired associate task. After presenting subjects with these two words, subjects must generate a sentence that uses both of the words. Dr. Smith’s methodology is studying the effect of which of the following processes on
paired-associate learning?

(a) free recall

(b) cognitive elaboration
(c) memorization

(d) direction of associations

22.When presented with the stimulus word “BASKET” and asked for a response, Jody replies “BALL:’This response is typical of research looking into which aspect of paired associate learning?

(a) S-R mapping

(b) cognitive elaboration

(c) prior knowledge

(d) direction of associations

 

 

23.Enhanced recall for information presented in an earlier (as opposed to later) portion of a word list is referred to as:

(a) the recency effect
(b) the primacy effect
(c) anchoring

(d) paired-associate learning

24.The existence of long-term memory can be said to be supported by the occurrence of:

(a) the recency effect
(b) the primacy effect
(c) anchoring

(d) paired-associate learning

25.The idea that words from the same semantic category can be recalled together even if they were not presented as part of the same list is the core idea underlying:

(a) categorical clustering
(b) subjective organization
(c) associative clustering
(d) matrix recall

 

Multiple Choice Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed answer sheet)

1.You are asked “Who was the first president of the United States?”To answer this question, you would most likely have to retrieve information from:

(a) short-term memory
(b) semantic memory
(c) episodic memory
(d) procedural memory

2.You are asked “Where were you on 9/1 1 ?” To answer this question, you would most likely have to retrieve information from:

(a) short-term memory
(b) semantic memory
(c) episodic memory
(d) procedural memory

3.The finding that certain amnesiacs have impaired episodic LTM but preserved semantic LTM (or vice-versa) suggests that:

(a) LTM is always damaged in amnesia
(b) STM is always damaged in amnesia

(c) episodic and semantic LTM are distinct from one another
(d) doctors don’t really understand the disease

4.This anomalous forgetting phenomenon describes when a person thinks they have come up with an original idea, only to realize later it was suggested by someone else.

(a) cryptomnesia
(b) deja vu

(c) fugue reaction

(d) none of the above

5. Which of the following is NOT known to produce memory loss?

(a) electroconvulsive therapy

(b) an unusual word appearing in the middle of a list of other words
(c) the inducing of frustration in infants

(d) none of the above

6.The answer to which of the following questions would most likely involve activation of the mechanism(s) behind implicit memory?

(a) “When did you graduate from high school?”
(b) “When is your birthday?”

(c) “How do you drive a stick shift vehicle?”
(d) “Where were you on 9/11?”

7. Implicit Memory: Explicit Memory as Unconscious:

(a) Inactive
(b) Indirect
(c) Conscious
(d) Retention

8. A test that makes direct reference to a prior episode is most likely assessing:

(a) incidental memory
(b) implicit memory
(c) working memory
(d) explicit memory

9. Mary’s knowledge of how to drive a car is most likely originating from her:

(a) explicit memory

(b) procedural memory
(c) episodic memory
(d) semantic memory

10.Which of the following features has been identified as being a critical characteristic of STM?

(a) unlimited capacity

(b) lack of potential for forgetting
(c) stores items verbally

(d) acoustic encoding

11.According to the word-length-effect, which of the following words has the best chance of being recalled correctly?

(a) INCARCERATION
(b) THOUGHTFULNESS
(c) TIRE

(d) MOUNTAINS

 

Learni Theories

12.The ability to recall, in order of presentation, which of the following number of items from a sequence of items, as indicative of a normal adult memory span:

(a) 12
(b) 4
(c) 7
(d) 2

13. The suffix effect tends to:

(a) enhance recall of recently-presented information

(b) enhance recall of information presented 24 hours or more prior to recall
(c) diminish recall of recently-presented information

(d) diminish recall of information presented 24 hours or more prior to recall

14. The impairment in patient K.F. suggests that:

(a) one needs STM to get information into LTM

(b) STM is not necessary for the transfer of information into LTM
(c) LTM has a limited capacity

(d) STM actually has an unlimited capacity

15.Which is NOT listed in your text (Box 8.2) as a condition which can cause memory loss?

(a) Lyme disease

(b) toxic poisoning from bad shellfish
(c) alcohol poisoning

(d) all of the above can cause memory loss

16. Emotional events are highly recallable because:

(a) they tend to be non-distinctive, inhibiting interference from external factors
(b) they allow our attention to wander

(c) they involve unconscious, but not conscious, memory processes

(d) the bodily arousal occurring with emotions enhances memory formation

17.According to McCarthy and Warrington (1990) which of the following is NOT a purpose of short term memory?

(a) familiarity

(b) problem solving

(c) language comprehension

(d) gateway to long-term memory

 

, 8. High amounts of domain-specific knowledge can lead to the development of:

(a) novice ability
(b) expert ability

(c) implicit memory

(d) procedural memory

, 9. The testing effect produces the effect it does because:

(a) testing is less challenging than continued studying

(b) transfer-appropriate processing mechanisms are engaged
(c) testing is not connected to studying

(d) none of the above

20.Of all of the lectures in his Introductory Economics class, Tom remembers the class about global economics best because the teacher wore all of his clothes backwards and inside-out. The teachers was seemingly trying to encourage:

(a) maintenance rehearsal
(b) the recency effect

(c) the formation of an implicit memory
(d) the von Restorff effect

21.One reason why textbooks place critical terms in bold-face is due to the premises of:

(a) maintenance rehearsal
(b) the recency effect

(c) the formation of an implicit memory
(d) the von Restorff effect

22.The enhanced recall of distinctive items, and the impaired recall of information presented just prior to the distinctive stimuli, is referred to as:

(a) the anterograde amnesic effect
(b) the retrograde amnesic effect
(c) the von Restorff effect

(d) the recency effect

23.The occurrence of distinctive stimuli impairing the recall of information presented after the distinctive items is referred to as:

(a) the anterograde amnesic effect
(b) the retrograde amnesic effect

(c) the von Restorff effect
(d) the recency effect

At the beginning of yesterday’s sociology class, Dr. Smith showed highly suggestive pictures of men and women to illustrate the different forms that pornography can take. After this 5-minute slide show, Dr. Smith gave a 45-minute lecture of pornography and modern society. However, immediately

Evolution of Social Behavior and Opportunities Case Assignment

RUBRIC QUALITY OF RESPONSE NO RESPONSE POOR / UNSATISFACTORY SATISFACTORY GOOD EXCELLENT Content (worth a maximum of 50% of the total points) Zero points:  Student failed to submit the final paper. 20 points out of 50:  The essay illustrates poor understanding of the relevant material by failing to address or incorrectly addressing the relevant content; failing to identify or inaccurately explaining/defining key concepts/ideas; ignoring or incorrectly explaining key points/claims and the reasoning behind them; and/or incorrectly or inappropriately using terminology; and elements of the response are lacking. 30 points out of 50:  The essay illustrates a rudimentary understanding of the relevant material by mentioning but not full explaining the relevant content; identifying some of the key concepts/ideas though failing to fully or accurately explain many of them; using terminology, though sometimes inaccurately or inappropriately; and/or incorporating some key claims/points but failing to explain the reasoning behind them or doing so inaccurately.  Elements of the required response may also be lacking. 40 points out of 50:  The essay illustrates solid understanding of the relevant material by correctly addressing most of the relevant content; identifying and explaining most of the key concepts/ideas; using correct terminology; explaining the reasoning behind most of the key points/claims; and/or where necessary or useful, substantiating some points with accurate examples.  The answer is complete. 50 points:  The essay illustrates exemplary understanding of the relevant material by thoroughly and correctly addressing the relevant content; identifying and explaining all of the key concepts/ideas; using correct terminology explaining the reasoning behind key points/claims and substantiating, as necessary/useful, points with several accurate and illuminating examples.  No aspects of the required answer are missing. Use of Sources (worth a maximum of 20% of the total points). Zero points:  Student failed to include citations and/or references. Or the student failed to submit a final paper. 5 out 20 points:  Sources are seldom cited to support statements and/or format of citations are not recognizable as APA 6th Edition format. There are major errors in the formation of the references and citations. And/or there is a major reliance on highly questionable. The Student fails to provide an adequate synthesis of research collected for the paper. 10 out 20 points:  References to scholarly sources are occasionally given; many statements seem unsubstantiated.  Frequent errors in APA 6th Edition format, leaving the reader confused about the source of the information. There are significant errors of the formation in the references and citations. And/or there is a significant use of highly questionable sources. 15 out 20 points:  Credible Scholarly sources are used effectively support claims and are, for the most part, clear and fairly represented.  APA 6th Edition is used with only a few minor errors.  There are minor errors in reference and/or citations. And/or there is some use of questionable sources. 20 points:  Credible scholarly sources are used to give compelling evidence to support claims and are clearly and fairly represented.  APA 6th Edition format is used accurately and consistently. The student uses above the maximum required references in the development of the assignment. Grammar (worth maximum of 20% of total points) Zero points:  Student failed to submit the final paper. 5 points out of 20:  The paper does not communicate ideas/points clearly due to inappropriate use of terminology and vague language; thoughts and sentences are disjointed or incomprehensible; organization lacking; and/or numerous grammatical, spelling/punctuation errors  10 points out 20:  The paper is often unclear and difficult to follow due to some inappropriate terminology and/or vague language; ideas may be fragmented, wandering and/or repetitive; poor organization; and/or some grammatical, spelling, punctuation errors 15 points out of 20:  The paper is mostly clear as a result of appropriate use of terminology and minimal vagueness; no tangents and no repetition; fairly good organization; almost perfect grammar, spelling, punctuation, and word usage. 20 points:  The paper is clear, concise, and a pleasure to read as a result of appropriate and precise use of terminology; total coherence of thoughts and presentation and logical organization; and the essay is error free. Structure of the Paper (worth 10% of total points) Zero points:  Student failed to submit the final paper. 3 points out of 10: Student needs to develop better formatting skills. The paper omits significant structural elements required for and APA 6th edition paper. Formatting of the paper has major flaws. The paper does not conform to APA 6th edition requirements whatsoever. 5 points out of 10: Appearance of final paper demonstrates the student’s limited ability to format the paper. There are significant errors in formatting and/or the total omission of major components of an APA 6th edition paper. They can include the omission of the cover page, abstract, and page numbers. Additionally the page has major formatting issues with spacing or paragraph formation. Font size might not conform to size requirements.  The student also significantly writes too large or too short of and paper 7 points out of 10: Research paper presents an above-average use of formatting skills. The paper has slight errors within the paper. This can include small errors or omissions with the cover page, abstract, page number, and headers. There could be also slight formatting issues with the document spacing or the font Additionally the paper might slightly exceed or undershoot the specific number of required written pages for the assignment. 10 points: Student provides a high-caliber, formatted paper. This includes an APA 6th edition cover page, abstract, page number, headers and is double spaced in 12’ Times Roman Font. Additionally, the paper conforms to the specific number of required written pages and neither goes over or under the specified length of the paper.
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